Can they Concieve?

Dear Doctor,
Sir, I want to commend you for the good work your are doing out there, I read your article published on the Sun Newspaper that’s why I came up with these questions for your advice and solutions: A man with watery sperm can he pregnant a lady. A lady that the menstrual cycle is between 34- 37days can she conceive? How can she determine how ovulation with this cycle Thank you for your understanding
Charlene Archibong; Loving Hotel, Uyo

Dear Charlene,
Watery sperm or semen is neither here nor there -- that is -- whether it looks watery or thick does not mean anything--it could look watery and be good; it could look thick -- and be empty of sperm cells; okay? The only way to be sure what it contains is -- You must do a test called SFA -- (Seminal Fluid Analysis) on the semen before you can say if it contains enough sperm cells to get a woman pregnant or not. You see, after a few minutes of release, the semen turns to water -- we call it "liquefaction" -- "turning into liquid -- turning into water or becoming water-like"; so you cannot base anything on seeming wateriness or seeming richness as in thick; okay? Great. Now, I agree that 34-37 days is a little far away from the more common 28 -30 days, but with menstrual cycles, 22 to 45 days is the range, that is allowed, so 34 -37 is still okay upon one condition-- has it always been like that with the lady or it was 28 days or so before and has only changed to the 34 to 37 days? I mean as a girl newly beginning menses in teenage how was it? That is the way it is supposed to be -- before the vicissitudes of life begin to affect it. So if it was so from the beginning-- we call this beginning the menarche-- it is okay now -- for that lady --not for every lady. If it was not so, then something has really gone amiss; okay? Now, for every woman and every cycle, there are two fixed phases or parts to the cycle. Part A + Part B = Cycle Length. Again, A+B =C where C is the length of the cycle. There is the first phase ("A") which is also referred to as the proliferative phase. It is this phase that varies in length. It ends with the release of the egg at ovulation; that is immediately ovulation has occurred the first or proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle has ended. The other phase ("B") does nothing of the sort; but is constant at about 14 days from start to finish. This "B" part begins immediately after ovulation and ends with the new menses beginning. It is constant and won't change -- this luteal phase or second phase. If it will change at all, it will be within just two days less and two days more. This means between 12 and 16 days at the most. Now, every woman has a first phase whose length in number of days is variable and a second constant phase at about just 14 days; so that once the ovulation has occurred about 14 days before the next menses, you can be sure the menses will come about 14 days later. The formula, if we use another set of symbols, again, is, L= F+S; S=14. So, L=F+14. Where L= Length of cycle; F= First phase; S=Second phase. So you have, in your case, 36 = F+ 14; since we said that the 14 day part is constant for all women. F=36-14 F=22. So, for you, check for your ovulation about day number 22 if the day you started menstruating is day number 1, and your cycle is 36 days long. This is how you determine ovulation within this kind -- or any kind or length of cycle. I hope you get it? If your own length of cycle is 30 days or 28 or 35 or 26 or whatever, just use the formula and you can actually and accurately calculate when your ovulation or release of an egg will occur --so as to either plan sex for that very day if you want to get pregnant or avoid sex around that period if you do not want to get pregnant. I'm sure you got it now? Send feedback.
Cheers